From: Matthias Blume (find@my.address.elsewhere) Subject: Re: [OT] Finns and education Newsgroups: comp.lang.scheme Date: 2004-09-07 19:12:10 PST richter@math.northwestern.edu (Bill Richter) writes: > [ ... ] On the 1st page of Will's > RichterFAQ (which is short, not like his long links), he writes: > > Q: Why isn't his semantics compositional? > > Because his semantics is the totalization of the transitive > closure of beta-value reduction [requiring N to be a value]: > > ((lambda (x) M) N) --> M[N/x] > > Substituting N for x yields a term that is not a subterm of > the redex on the left side of that arrow. In a definition by > structural induction, the meaning of the redex must be > defined by a function of the meanings of its proper subterms. > > I've refuted this several times here. Will is not saying what you > say: he's not saying the "whole shebang" is really OpS. Will is > giving a mathematical objection, and I only object that it's bad Math. > Will's objection seems to be that my original definition of my E_i is > not a compositional definition. That's of course true. But I proved > that E_1 had a different definition that was compositional. I can only conclude that you must be /really/, *really* dense! For the last time: No, there is no "different" definition that is compositional -- at least not the one you gave. And the reason for this is the simple fact that your supposedly compositional definition _relies_ on an existing non-compositional definition. You can't start with a non-compositional definition, pile on some gratuituous identity function in a compositional manner, and then claim the whole thing is compositional! > [ ... ] but I did at followup you, > with a completely standard cls proof that my E_i have a compositional > definition. Nobody ever followuped my post. Because it was complete bullshit. See above. > [ ... ] > Correct. Let me apologize again, and thank Gustavo for correcting me: > Cartwright & Felleisen do not say this. But that's only a "social" > error, it's not a mathematical error. I incorrectly cited C-F, but > the definition I inferred from C-F makes perfect sense. Right. It's just a flesh wound. > Sure, but maybe I'm the only here who understands what's meant by a > mathematical definition. Please show me I'm wrong! You woundn't see it if it hit you. You got me convinced of that by now. Matthias